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Whats the rule that makes "please" pronounced the same as "pleas"?

Last Updated: 20.06.2025 10:01

Whats the rule that makes "please" pronounced the same as "pleas"?

What's (not “whats”) the rule?

Words are pronounced the way that they're pronounced.

Whence the <ea> I cannot say but some other words that were spelled <ai> in French are spelled <ea> in English: aise → ease, graisse → grease, fait → feat.

What explanations do flat earthers have for the shape of our planet? If they do not have any, why should their opinions on this topic be considered credible?

You'll usually find your answer there.

Back in the day (circa 1300), it was written <plesen>.

Please is an anglicization of the French word plaisir.

Who are the archers in Genesis 49:23?

If you're curious about why a word is spelled the way it's spelled, your first recourse should be etymonline dot com.

While you may reasonably ask why words are spelled the way they're spelled, it makes no sense to ask why they're pronounced the way they're pronounced.

Pleas is spelled <pleas> because it's the plural of pleas.

You found a love potion, and your friend tried to use it on an attractive popular girl, but he accidentally dropped it on the neighbors dog. Now the dog won't stop following him. How would you help him?

There's no rule.